>>So the “you” in the first verses was emphasizing the distinction between Paul, a Jew, and the Gentile Ephesian Christians. According to this idea, these verses could read, “You Gentiles were dead, you Gentiles were following the ways of the world….” But then, in verse three, Paul realizes the implications of his grammar and moves to correct it.
Wow, I would be very wary of saying Paul 'corrected' something in an early verse. Inerrancy and all that.
I think the much more natural reading, coming from chapter one, is 'You, the church at Ephesus, Gentile believers, were like this, and like this, but *we* all Christians are like this, then continues with 'ye were Gentiles'.... etc
Paul was both a Jew (not a Gentile), but also no a member (as it were) of the church he is writing to. The word 'you' is natural when talking about them. The word 'we' would be used when moving the discussion to things which were universal in order to point out their universiality.
Cause moving right along he goes back to 'you' ( or 'ye', different part of speech) when talking, again, about their specific state.
Eph 2:11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
Eph 2:12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
So, far from saying that Paul 'corrected himself' I would argue that he used the correct pronoun for each section. And we should apply the 'you' only to 'we' when the shoe, as it were, fits. Thus a modern convert from Judaism would not apply some of the 'you' to himself. (for example 2:11)
>>So the “you” in the first verses was emphasizing the distinction between Paul, a Jew, and the Gentile Ephesian Christians. According to this idea, these verses could read, “You Gentiles were dead, you Gentiles were following the ways of the world….” But then, in verse three, Paul realizes the implications of his grammar and moves to correct it.
Wow, I would be very wary of saying Paul 'corrected' something in an early verse. Inerrancy and all that.
I think the much more natural reading, coming from chapter one, is 'You, the church at Ephesus, Gentile believers, were like this, and like this, but *we* all Christians are like this, then continues with 'ye were Gentiles'.... etc
Paul was both a Jew (not a Gentile), but also no a member (as it were) of the church he is writing to. The word 'you' is natural when talking about them. The word 'we' would be used when moving the discussion to things which were universal in order to point out their universiality.
Cause moving right along he goes back to 'you' ( or 'ye', different part of speech) when talking, again, about their specific state.
Eph 2:11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
Eph 2:12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
So, far from saying that Paul 'corrected himself' I would argue that he used the correct pronoun for each section. And we should apply the 'you' only to 'we' when the shoe, as it were, fits. Thus a modern convert from Judaism would not apply some of the 'you' to himself. (for example 2:11)